RAC-DEVICES Exam Prep Free practice test →

Free RAC-DEVICES Practice Questions

10 free, exam-style Regulatory Affairs Certification - Devices (RAC-DEVICES) practice questions with answers and explanations. No signup required. Work through them below, then take the full free RAC-DEVICES practice test to study every exam domain.

The RAC-DEVICES exam has 120 questions and runs 2 hours 30 minutes.

Question 1

A regulatory professional is advising R&D on the lifecycle implications of using machine learning for image segmentation. Which framework BEST supports continuous algorithm updates without repeated submissions?

  1. Special 510(k) program for software changes
  2. Predetermined Change Control Plan submission
  3. Real-Time PMA Supplement for AI algorithm updates
  4. Letter to File for non-significant software changes
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - Predetermined Change Control Plan submission

Question 2

A medical device firm is sequencing global market entry. The team wants minimum audit overhead across multiple jurisdictions. Which program BEST achieves this?

  1. FDA Quality System Inspection Technique
  2. ISO 13485 third-party certification
  3. WHO Prequalification audit pathway
  4. Medical Device Single Audit Program
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - Medical Device Single Audit Program

MDSAP is the Medical Device Single Audit Program with five participating regulators: FDA (US), Health Canada, ANVISA (Brazil), TGA (Australia), and PMDA (Japan). A single MDSAP audit replaces routine audits across all five jurisdictions.

Question 3

A device has the same intended use as a predicate but uses a different technological characteristic. The next 510(k) decision question is:

  1. Whether the device qualifies for De Novo pathway
  2. Whether the predicate is still legally marketed
  3. Whether differences raise new questions of S&E
  4. Whether the device requires a PMA pathway
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - Whether differences raise new questions of S&E

FDA's Substantial Equivalence decision tree: Step 1 = same intended use? Step 2 = same technological characteristics? Step 3 = if different, do those differences raise new questions of safety/effectiveness? Step 4 = do performance data demonstrate.

Question 4

A regulatory professional advises that a wearable continuously displays heart rate and provides exercise targets. The intended use is general wellness with no medical claims. Under §520(o), this product is:

  1. Excluded from the FDA device definition
  2. A Class II device requiring 510(k) clearance
  3. Subject to PMA approval as a Class III device
  4. Required to obtain De Novo classification
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - Excluded from the FDA device definition

Question 5

Effective February 2, 2026, combination product current Good Manufacturing Practice requirements reference which regulation as the device baseline?

  1. 21 CFR 820 Quality System Regulation framework
  2. 21 CFR 211 drug cGMP framework reference
  3. 21 CFR 820 Quality Management System Regulation
  4. 21 CFR 600 biologics standards framework
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - 21 CFR 820 Quality Management System Regulation

Effective February 2, 2026, FDA's Quality Management System Regulation (QMSR) replaced the prior Quality System Regulation (QSR), incorporating ISO 13485:2016 by reference.

Question 6

A manufacturer claims their device is the most accurate on the market without comparative clinical data. Under EU MDR, this MOST clearly violates which article?

  1. Article 7 on misleading product claims
  2. Article 14 on distributor obligations
  3. Article 10 on manufacturer obligations
  4. Article 5 on placing on the market
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - Article 7 on misleading product claims

EU MDR Article 7 prohibits text, names, trademarks, pictures, and figurative or other signs that may mislead users or patients about the device's intended purpose, safety, and performance - explicitly including comparative claims unsupported by.

Question 7

A connected SaMD device with cyber-device characteristics under §524B requires which premarket content?

  1. Penetration test reports from a federal agency
  2. An external NIST cybersecurity certification mark
  3. Encryption keys disclosed to FDA reviewer staff
  4. Cybersecurity documentation including SBOM data
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - Cybersecurity documentation including SBOM data

Under §524B and FDA's 2025 Cybersecurity Final Guidance, cyber device premarket submissions must include cybersecurity documentation - threat model, security risk management, security architecture views, Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) with.

Question 8

A regulatory professional confirms an FDA 510(k) submission requires which user fee?

  1. PDUFA fee under drug user fee schedule
  2. MDUFA V 510(k) standard or small-business fee
  3. BsUFA fee under biosimilar user fee schedule
  4. GDUFA fee under generic drug user fee schedule
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - MDUFA V 510(k) standard or small-business fee

FDA medical device user fees are governed by MDUFA V (Medical Device User Fee Amendments, FY2023-FY2027). PDUFA covers prescription drugs, BsUFA covers biosimilars, and GDUFA covers generic drugs - none of these apply to 510(k) submissions.

Question 9

A regulatory professional cross-checks the Risk Management File against the Clinical Evaluation Report. Inconsistency between them:

  1. Has no impact on regulatory submission review process
  2. Triggers automatic De Novo classification request
  3. Could undermine the benefit-risk justification overall
  4. Only affects post-market surveillance plans drafted
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - Could undermine the benefit-risk justification overall

ISO 14971 risk management and EU MDR Annex XIV clinical evaluation are intrinsically linked: residual risks identified in the Risk Management File must be addressed in the Clinical Evaluation Report's benefit-risk analysis, and clinical findings in.

Question 10

An EU MDR Article 87 reporting timeline for death or serious deterioration is:

  1. Without delay, but no later than 2 days from awareness
  2. Without delay, but no later than 7 days from awareness
  3. Without delay, but no later than 15 days from awareness
  4. Without delay, but no later than 10 days from awareness
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - Without delay, but no later than 10 days from awareness

EU MDR Article 87(3) sets three vigilance reporting timelines that every RAC-Devices candidate must memorize: 2 days for serious public-health threats, 10 days for death or serious deterioration in health, and 15 days for any other serious incident.

What's on the RAC-DEVICES exam

The Regulatory Affairs Certification - Devices (RAC-DEVICES) exam is organized into 4 knowledge domains. These free practice questions are drawn from across them so you can see where you're strong and where to study:

  1. Strategic Planning 27% of exam
  2. Design and Development 27% of exam
  3. Process for Licensing, Registration, and Renewals 23% of exam
  4. Post-Market Activities 23% of exam

Ready for the real thing?

Practice hundreds more RAC-DEVICES questions with instant scoring, weak-area drills, and full exam simulations.

Start the free practice test See pricing